[Freeciv-Dev] Re: Tech cost patch v8

[Raimar Falke <hawk@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>]

On Fri, Nov 30, 2001 at 11:21:26PM +0200, Juha Litola wrote:
> On Fri, Nov 30, 2001 at 10:30:34PM +0200, Juha Litola wrote:
> > 
> > > Why is this special case need for tech_cost_style == 0 in goal_tech_cost?
> > Because costs for civ1 and civ2 style aren't consistent. Cost
> > of technology changes when we research new techs. Following from
> > that, goal_tech_cost just cannot be calculated in the same way
> > as other styles.
> Oh well, one oversight more. Currently goal_tech_cost for style 0
> doesn't use tech_leakage. Problem with counting the goal cost for
> style 0 is that there may be multiple different costs. Any of them
> will probably do?
> 
> I'll make a new version tomorrow. It will move calculating tech_leakage
> to own function and move find_prerequisites from
> aitech.c to tech.c and use it in goal_tech_cost to calculate
> estimate for style 0.
> 
> Own function for tech_leakage will need return value multiplied by
> 100 or it will underflow. 
> 
> Mighty mess, does anyone invent nicer way? Or should we just use
> tech_cost even for style 0 version of goal_tech_cost and get slightly
> wrong estimates if we have many parallel possible ways to fill
> the requirements?
> 
> Literacy is an example of problem I'm talking about. Assume that 
> tech_leakage style 1 is in effect.
> 
>           Alphabet
>       |             |
>   Code of laws   Writing
>          |       |
>          Literacy
> 
> 
> If many other players have invented writing (assume cost left is 25%), 
> it's much cheaper to research first code of laws and after that writing, 
> when unmodified cost is higher. 

How does Civ3 in this respect?

        Raimar

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