[Freeciv-Dev] Re: Tech cost patch v8

[Juha Litola <slave@xxxxxxxxxxxx>]

On Fri, Nov 30, 2001 at 10:30:34PM +0200, Juha Litola wrote:
> 
> > Why is this special case need for tech_cost_style == 0 in goal_tech_cost?
> Because costs for civ1 and civ2 style aren't consistent. Cost
> of technology changes when we research new techs. Following from
> that, goal_tech_cost just cannot be calculated in the same way
> as other styles.
Oh well, one oversight more. Currently goal_tech_cost for style 0
doesn't use tech_leakage. Problem with counting the goal cost for
style 0 is that there may be multiple different costs. Any of them
will probably do?

I'll make a new version tomorrow. It will move calculating tech_leakage
to own function and move find_prerequisites from
aitech.c to tech.c and use it in goal_tech_cost to calculate
estimate for style 0.

Own function for tech_leakage will need return value multiplied by
100 or it will underflow. 

Mighty mess, does anyone invent nicer way? Or should we just use
tech_cost even for style 0 version of goal_tech_cost and get slightly
wrong estimates if we have many parallel possible ways to fill
the requirements?

Literacy is an example of problem I'm talking about. Assume that 
tech_leakage style 1 is in effect.

          Alphabet
      |             |
  Code of laws   Writing
         |       |
         Literacy


If many other players have invented writing (assume cost left is 25%), 
it's much cheaper to research first code of laws and after that writing, 
when unmodified cost is higher. 

--
// Juha Litola

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