[Freeciv-Dev] Re: Proof from Civ2 - Settlers going for 50% discount
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> give proof that civ1 / civII dont have this
Just tested it in Civ2, the bribing formula in Civ2 is:
bribe price=(enemy treasury+750)/(distance+2) * (unit cost/10)
Treasury= opponents gold reserve
distance= distance of enemy unit to its capital (max=32)
Unit cost= the number of shields needed for a unit
A catapult and a settler cost the same amount of shields (both 40). So in
theory they should cost the same. So I set up a situation with some settlers
and catapults a large/medium/short distance away from their capital. The
victim had an empty treasury. Goverment was despotism
The results:
(large distance)
bribe costs catapult: 82 gold
bribe cost settler: 164 gold
(medium distance)
catapult: 106
settler:200
(short distance)
catapult:214
settler: 372
Testing with other 40 shield units gives the same results
Conclusion: In all cases settlers were far more expensive than other regular
units. In fact the results in Civ2 seem to point out that settlers are
actually DOUBLED in price, not halved!
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